BIBLE
DIGEST - Number 39
(Revised)
March 1994
WHAT
IS “PORNEIA”?
A HEBREW AND GREEK WORD STUDY – IN ENGLISH
By Allon
Maxwell
|
In this paper we
shall study the Greek word "porneia". In Matthew's Gospel
this is the word used by Jesus to define the sexual sin which He says is the only
valid ground for divorce and freedom to remarry with a new partner. This is a very important
question. It is not simply an isolated theoretical discussion about the meaning
of a Greek word. It is about our
understanding of the Gospel. It is about whether or not our hearts are hard. It
is about Jesus' definition of the sin of adultery. It is about whether people
who divorce and then remarry, can inherit the Kingdom of God. It affects the nature
of our dealings with people we know who, depending on what Jesus really meant,
may be living in adultery. In our time many
modern Greek scholars tell us that according to the Greek lexicons, “porneia”
is a broad word defining sexual sin of all kinds. This broad meaning is then applied
to the specific case of divorce, using it to justify divorce AND REMARRIAGE on
the ground of ADULTERY. However, the same
scholars also tell us that “porneia”, does have other more restrictive meanings.
This does leave the possibility open that, from amongst the several meanings available
to them, they may have chosen the wrong one to apply to the "exceptive
clause". In fact there are
other scholars who do argue that “porneia” is a much more specific word which
does not include adultery. The "experts"
disagree amongst themselves! How shall we who
are not "experts" or scholars, decide between them? THE BASIS OF THE
STUDY In this paper we
shall use Greek and Hebrew words often. However at the very
beginning I confess that, like most of you, I can't read Hebrew. I do have a Hebrew
lexicon, but it is no help. I don't even know the Hebrew alphabet. Greek is not much
better. I can read the alphabet and, with some effort, recognise a few words. I know a small amount
of Greek grammar ..... just enough to be dangerous! Those of you who
share these limitations with me, will understand the need to find a way to conduct
this study of Greek and Hebrew words without credentials in either Greek or Hebrew! Because this paper
is written for laymen, I will attempt to write it in such a way that any layman
can duplicate the study for himself by using the same methods. I will use only
tools and sources readily available to other laymen. I will not quote
from Lexicons which most of us cannot read. Nor will I quote from the writings
of the many conflicting "experts". It would not help
if I did. Most of what I think are the best books, are now out of print and not
available for you, either to verify the sources for yourself, or make a rational
assessment of their contents. In any case both
the Lexicons and the writings of the "experts" suffer from a common
deficiency. "Man shall not live by bread alone, but by
every word that proceeds from the mouth of God".
(Matthew 4:4) Neither the Lexicons
nor the many contradictory opinions found in the writings of the "experts"
are words from the mouth of God! They are not always
wrong, but neither are they inspired or infallible. They are as much
open to theological bias and HARDNESS OF HEART about this subject as they are
about others! If we want to base
our study on words which are certainly from the mouth of God, we have only one
source. We will have to
read our Bibles! ...... And we will have to pray! Peter warns us (2 Peter 1:20-21), that understanding an inspired writing
requires the same help from the Holy Spirit, as was given to the writers. It is open for all
of us to say our own prayers and read the Bible for ourselves. God invites us
to believe that when we pray for wisdom, with hearts open to Him, we will NOT
BE LEFT ALONE. Any of us who know
that we are amongst those foolish people described in To follow this method
will prove to be time consuming. There are no short cuts. If we want to hear God's
words on this subject, we will have to read them all. To do this, I have
used my Young's Analytical Concordance, which spells out the Greek and Hebrew
words in English letters, to find and PRAYERFULLY read EVERY passage where the
Concordance tells me the relevant words appear. I have sought the
promised work of the Holy Spirit to lead me into the truth and open my eyes to
see clearly, in context, HOW GOD USES THE WORDS. The conclusions
I have reached are no better or worse than the degree to which my prayer has been
heard and answered. PLEASE DO NOT MERELY
READ MY PAPER! There
is no such thing as "second hand" faith. For your own conclusions to
become a matter of personal faith, you will need to read ALL those Scriptures
yourself. You will need to say your own prayers in total honesty of heart, for
God to open YOUR spiritual eyes and then write His truth, in your heart and mind. And
if you too discover what I have found, you may need to be prepared for unpopularity! USING THE CONCORDANCE The concordances,
like the Lexicons, will offer several meanings for the words. We must be careful
what we do with those several meanings. We must avoid the
pitfalls of searching out alternative meanings from the concordance and then simply
changing the translation, just because it advances our cause. We all know that
we don't do that with an English dictionary when reading other books in our own
language! Why should it be acceptable to do it with the Bible, in Greek or Hebrew? What we are trying
to do, first of all, is understand HOW God uses the words, in a book GIVEN TO
US BY GOD. Then we must find,
prayerfully, the "mind of Christ", (1 Corinthians 2:11-16), to decide which of the several possible
meanings is appropriate in the NARROW CONTEXT of the teaching of Jesus about divorce
and remarriage. DECIDING BETWEEN
THE "EXPERTS" Only a generation
ago, there was little argument amongst laymen (at least in my acquaintance), about
the meaning of “porneia”. Indeed, most of us didn't even know the word existed!
Nor did we expect that we would one day need to become amateur Greek scholars,
to understand what Jesus was saying to us. We didn't need to
know! We all had our King James Bible with its English translation of the word
as "fornication". And we ALL knew what that meant. The average man in
the street still does know what that word means. However, in the
Church that has all changed now. We have even changed the word in some modern
translations of the Bible, making it a little easier to justify the finding of
new marriage partners. That is not a small
change at all ..... and it presents us with a serious problem. We are confronted
with a difference between "experts". The earlier translators
did their work against the background of centuries of history in which the Church
stood firmly against divorce and remarriage. The modern translators
of those few versions in which the change appears, have done their work in an
atmosphere infected by the bias of hard hearted churchmen who justify divorce
and remarriage, not only for adultery, but also on all of the other grounds rejected
by Jesus. However it is not
simply a matter of choosing between the ancient and the new. Nor is it a matter
of counting "expert" heads to settle the issue by a "democratic
vote" and follow the majority opinion. We must all hear
from God for ourselves, what JESUS means by “porneia” in those two places where
He uses it in the context of divorce. For many the difference
between those old and new "experts" will prove to be the difference
between eternal life and eternal death. At the Judgement
each divorced and remarried individual will have to answer for his own personal
choice of "experts". Unrepentant adulterers
of all kinds, and every meaning of the word, will be rejected from the kingdom
of God. And some of the
"experts" will also have to answer to God for their part in causing
others to stumble into sin. Is it just possible
that a whole generation of the Church has been BEGUILED by the subtle logic of
the Serpent, explaining away both what Jesus said about adultery, and the dreadful
consequences of the sin? The Serpent does still say, "you will not
surely die"! (Genesis
3:4) THE WORD STUDY -
IN ENGLISH Our word study begins
with the English words "fornication" and "unchastity". For good measure,
we shall also add the words, "adultery", "harlot", "whore",
and "prostitute". "Fornication"
is the word chosen by the translators of the King James Version and The Jerusalem
Bible, as the most suitable rendition of the meaning of “porneia”, in the two
places where Jesus uses it to define the sole possible ground for divorce. (Matthew 5:32 & Matthew 19:9) The Concise
Oxford Dictionary defines "fornication" as ..... "Voluntary sexual
intercourse between a man (occasionally restricted to unmarried men) and an unmarried
woman." Note carefully that
the marital status of the man is not the point at issue here. The important point
is that the woman is ALWAYS unmarried. "Unchastity"
is the replacement word for "fornication", used in some newer versions
of the Bible. These include the Revised Standard Version, New English Bible and
New American Standard Bible. Other less known versions which use "unchastity"
include Moffatt and Weymouth. The Concise Oxford
Dictionary gives the meaning of "unchastity" as the opposite of "chastity".
i.e. the opposite of ..... "continence, virginity, celibacy". Following the dictionary
a little further, a virgin is "a person, especially a woman, who has had
no sexual intercourse". A celibate is "a
person not married, or of unmarried life and habits". "Harlot"
and "whore" both mean "prostitute". "Prostitute"
means ..... "a woman who offers her body to indiscriminate sexual intercourse,
especially for hire". "Adultery"
translates the Greek “moichea”. According to the Concise
Oxford Dictionary this English word means ..... "Voluntary sexual intercourse
of a married person with one of the opposite sex other than his or her spouse". These dictionary
meanings leave us in no doubt at all, about what the translators meant us to understand
by “porneia” as the sole ground of divorce allowed by Jesus. In the language
that we all speak, they DID NOT chose other English words with a wider meaning
including "all sorts of sexual sin", or more specifically, "adultery".
Instead they chose words which clearly set “porneia” apart from "adultery",
especially in the context of divorce. They chose either
"fornication" or "unchastity". When used about a woman, as
they are in Matthew 5:32 & Matthew 19:9, these English words mean "sexual
sin by an unmarried woman". When used about a married woman
as a ground for divorce, as is also the case in these verses, they can only refer
to sin committed BEFORE marriage. It is only in recent
times, as the Church has radically altered its position on divorce, that major
new translations have accommodated this change by moving away from "fornication"
and "unchastity" to "sexual immorality", (New King James),
or as the New International Version has it, "marital unfaithfulness". THE WORD STUDY -
IN HEBREW When I set out to
study the meaning of “porneia” I quickly came to the conclusion that I was studying
the wrong word! (and in the wrong language!) Jesus did not speak
the original words about divorce in Greek! Instead, He spoke in Hebrew or Aramaic. Jesus did not say
"except for porneia". Rather, He most likely said "except
for taznuth". To arrive at His
meaning we will do well to study this Old Testament Hebrew noun which Jesus must
have used. We will also need to study the parallel verb "zanah" and two other associated words, "zenuth" and "zenunim". I found that these
words have ONLY ONE BASIC MEANING but are used in THREE SEPARATE WAYS. They are
not all inclusive words defining sexual sin in general. They define one specific
sexual sin in three different settings. It is the context which defines which
way the word is to be understood. In virtually every
place where these words occur, their fundamental meaning is to do
with "prostitution", "harlotry", "whoredom". They NEVER mean
anything else. The three settings
in which they are used are discussed below. 1. PROSTITUTION In this setting
the words are used with their fundamental meaning. They describe the sin of a
woman who prostitutes herself by selling her body to a man who is not her husband.
Examples of their use this way are found in Leviticus
21:13-14 and Deuteronomy 23:18. 2. FORNICATION In English we have
separate words to distinguish between fornication and harlotry. Unlike English,
there does not appear to be a separate Hebrew word to distinguish between these
two sins. In Hebrew they are the same thing. In God's view of the matter, a man
who seduces a girl is treating her like a harlot. An unmarried girl who allows
herself to be seduced has earned the name and reputation of a harlot. "Zanah"
is used this way, describing the sin of an unmarried woman, in 3. IDOLATRY By far the major
use of these words is in reference to the sin of idolatry. In many places the
spiritual condition of idolatrous Israel and Judah is described as whoredom. Examples of their
use in this way occur in Exodus 34:15-16
& Leviticus 20:5. Harlotry is certainly
a fitting description of particular forms of idolatry, which appears, in many
cases, to include temple prostitution. However, the words,
in themselves, DO NOT MEAN IDOLATRY. When they appear
in this setting, they are used to describe the defilement of the SPIRITUAL relationship
between God and His people. This results, not
from idolatry alone, but from the many different sins tolerated
and practised amongst an apostate people, who have turned away to the worship
of other Gods. DOES WHOREDOM IN
THE HEBREW, INCLUDE ADULTERY? In a few places
(principally in the writings of Jeremiah, Ezekiel and Hosea) an adulteress is
called a harlot. Sometimes both words
are used together. In these cases harlotry is also used in the context of divorce. When a married woman
becomes a harlot, it is inescapable that she also commits adultery ..... two sins,
with TWO DIFFERENT NAMES, in the one act. These passages are
not teaching us that the Hebrew words for harlotry, adultery and idolatry, mean
the same thing, or are interchangeable in every place where they appear. In fact, in Hosea 4:13-14, Hosea uses both harlotry and adultery
together, in a way that clearly shows the NORMAL difference between these two
words : *
Harlotry is the ONLY name for the sexual
sin of (unmarried) daughters. *
Adultery is the NORMAL name for the
sexual sin of married women. *
Idolatry is not necessarily about sexual
sin at all. It ought to be clear that, the prophets are not really speaking about
divorce and certainly not about remarriage after divorce! Rather, they are conveying
a SPIRITUAL lesson about the consequences of backslidden Israel's NATIONAL sin
of IDOLATRY. And, as we shall
see below, it is not appropriate at all to transfer that spiritual lesson to the
realm of human marriage, in order to take licence to find a new marriage partner. The spiritual lesson
is about the magnitude of the sin and the consequences
of the sin. This is a NATIONAL sin with NATIONAL consequences. Israel's
"adultery" is no ordinary adultery. It needs a bigger word than "adultery"
to describe God's view of her spiritual condition. Israel is likened
to a woman who has deserted her husband to become a harlot. The woman used to
describe Israel's condition, knows no shame. She is insatiable. She is a harlot
who has given herself to many lovers, without payment. Rather than seeking payment,
she has actually paid some of the many lovers she has taken. The SPIRITUAL LESSON
behind the graphic word pictures of harlotry, is that Israel is DEFILED AND SEPARATED
FROM GOD by idolatry, in exactly the same way that a woman who wilfully plays
the harlot, without repentance , is defiled and separated from an
angry husband. The prophets have
described a "worst possible case". The situation between God and Israel
is so bad that, in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, GOD HAS DIVORCED HIS HARLOT WIFE! The
NATION has been sent into exile for its persistent unrepentant IDOLATRY. It is certainly
true that, even for Christians, unrepented harlotry of this magnitude would lead
to estrangement and separation. However, as we shall see below, even in this worst
possible case, the prophets are not uniform about whether God has issued an actual
bill of divorce. And it would be
HARDNESS OF HEART, in the extreme, to use this spiritual lesson to grant a LICENCE
FOR REMARRIAGE on the grounds of either idolatry or adultery. It is quite obvious
from the context of Jeremiah and Ezekiel, that God still regards Himself as bound
by His "marriage covenant" with Israel. God is not using His "divorce"
as an occasion to seek a new wife. Rather, He is inviting the harlot to repent
and return to Him. The door is open for that and will never close, while life
grants opportunity. In Isaiah, it is
not even certain that the bill of divorce exists. However it is not important
that we resolve the question of whether or not there has been a formal "divorce".
Either way the lesson is the same. The "wife" who has been sent away
for her iniquities is neither forgotten nor forsaken. Zion will be restored to
favour. Hosea goes even
further with the lesson of God's faithfulness. When faced with his own decision
about what to do with a wife who has become a harlot, Hosea DOES NOT DIVORCE HER.
Rather, at considerable personal cost, he actually buys her back from the brothel
where she has become a slave. This, Hosea says,
is how God also will deal with His faithless "wife". With one united
voice, the prophets are saying what the Apostle Paul also said, centuries later: GOD WILL REMAIN
UNMARRIED OR ELSE BE RECONCILED! How is it possible
that men would dare to distort or misuse these beautiful lessons to encourage
or condone a lesser standard for human marriage? If there is any
lesson at all to be learned from the prophets about human divorce and remarriage,
it is that, even for the worst sort of hurt, even in the worst possible case of
ADULTERY, God expects US also to keep covenant with the same unchangeable and
sacrificial love which He extends to His "wife". That is the nature
of the covenant keeping which is one of the qualifications for life with God on
the holy mountain. (Psalm 15:4
..... "he who swears to his own hurt and does not change".) When we say our
marriage vows before God, we make a sacred promise, "for better, for worse,
until death do us part". Those words contain no exceptions and leave no room
for change. Let those whose
hearts have been hard about this, turn towards God, listen and learn! THE WORD STUDY -
IN GREEK “porneia” is the
Greek translation of the Hebrew words discussed above. It appears to be
used in all the same ways as its Hebrew equivalent, including "spiritual
fornication". 1. PROSTITUTION Like its Hebrew
equivalent, this is the fundamental meaning of the word. It describes the
sin of a woman who prostitutes herself by giving her body to a man who is not
her husband, in return for money. It also defines the sin of the man who buys
her favours. An example of this
use of the word is found in 1 Corinthians 6:13-20. 2. FORNICATION Greek, like Hebrew,
does not appear to have separate words to distinguish between fornication and
prostitution. This lack of distinction between the two does fit well with the
Hebrew view. An unmarried girl
who commits fornication is behaving like a harlot, and the man who seduces her
is using her as a harlot. “porneia” is used
in this way, describing the sin of unmarried persons, in 1 Corinthians 7:2 & John 8:41 & 1 Thessalonians 4:3. 3. SPIRITUAL FORNICATION In Revelation chapters 17 & 18 the Apostle John
uses the word in the same way as the Old testament prophets, to describe an apostate
church. However in John's
prophecy, the word is not quite so much about idolatry, (although that is certainly
ONE of the problems of apostate Catholicism). Instead, John concentrates
more on the apostate church's faithless political alliances with the kings of
the earth, which he says will earn the same certain judgement as REAL harlotry. Another difference
in John's word picture, compared with the Old Testament, is that he nowhere describes
the harlot church of Revelation chapters 17
& 18, as a DIVORCED WIFE. DOES “porneia” INCLUDE
ADULTERY? In Greek "adultery"
is the word "moicheia". It has
the same NORMAL distinction from “porneia” as our English word "adultery"
does from "fornication" or "prostitution". It is frequently
claimed that in several places in the New Testament, “porneia” is used in a way
that includes "sexual sin in general", and "adultery in particular". There are certainly
a number of verses where “porneia” occurs, where it plainly does NOT include adultery.
These references include: *
The words of Jesus Himself, in Matthew 15:19 and Mark 7:21, where BOTH "fornication"
and "adultery" are used in the same sentence, showing exactly the difference
between the two sins that we normally understand. *
The words of Paul, in 1 Corinthians 6:9 & Hebrews 13:4, where the Apostle makes the same
distinction. These verses are
very positive in defining the NORMAL distinction between the two words. This should,
at the very least, make us ask whether “porneia” is ever used in any other way
which loses that distinction. One of the verses
regularly used to claim a wider general meaning for the word is Galatians 5:19-21, where Paul lists the works of the
flesh which will prevent inheritance of the Kingdom of God. At the top of the
list is “porneia”. It is often claimed
that the meaning of “porneia” in this passage extends to include all the other
sexual sins not specifically listed. It is then claimed that this justifies the
conclusion that “porneia” means "sexual sin in general” and includes "adultery". However, it worth
noting that the King James version does list adultery and fornication separately
in this passage. (and the concordance tells me that in fact, both words are included
in the older version of the Greek text from which this translation is made). This certainly implies
that the compilers of that older Greek text and the translators of the KJV did
NOT understand “porneia” to include adultery, at least in this passage. The conclusion that
the meaning of “porneia” must include all the other sexual sins omitted from the
list, is really a rather short sighted and hard hearted ABUSE OF THE GREEK (AND
ENGLISH) LANGUAGE! That
list is clearly incomplete with respect to many other NON SEXUAL sins. It
is just as clear that none of these are included in the literal meaning of the
Greek words for ANY OF THE OTHER SINS NAMED. However, there is
one phrase in the verse which does include ALL of those other unlisted sins. They
appear under the general term, "AND SUCH LIKE"! That phrase means
ET CETERA! It is much more
reasonable and correct to include all the other sexual sins under that "et
cetera", than to bend the Greek in a desperate attempt to annexe them under
"fornication"! This is how we must
also view the meaning of “porneia” when it appears in other lists, such as in
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
& Colossians 3:5. These are NOT lists
which name every possible sin! They are incomplete
lists in which “porneia” is TYPICAL of a range of other sexual sins. The use of “porneia”
does not mean that those sins are included in the specific meaning of the word
itself. We are meant to understand that "ET CETERA" is IMPLIED, just
as certainly as it is actually written in Galatians
5:21. There remains one
other New Testament reference, where “porneia” is often treated with similar carelessness
to claim that it includes "adultery", or perhaps "incest",
in its meaning. That is the case in Corinth, of the man who was living with his
father's wife. However on closer
inspection we find that there are several unanswered speculative questions about
this case. Firstly, Paul says,
this is a unique and rare kind of “porneia” seldom found even amongst pagans.
This certainly suggests caution about using this case to determine the NORMAL
meaning of the word. Secondly, Paul's
careful identification of the woman as "his father's wife" implies that
she is, almost certainly, not the man's own mother, but his step-mother. In view
of Paul's emphasis of the other repugnant aspects of this case it hardly seems
likely that he would not also clearly say "mother", if this was true.
(See Leviticus 18:7-8.) Thirdly, we should
consider the possibility that perhaps the man's father was dead. All three of these
factors might affect Paul's usually careful choice of words. If the man's father
was dead, and if it was the man's stepmother, then "adultery" would
NOT be the appropriate word, (as it would seem to be if the father was still alive).
Rather, the use of "fornication" (between unmarried persons), might
be a much more accurate choice. However, there is
simply not enough information for us to speculate further on Paul's choice of
words. We merely raise sufficient doubt about the situation, to discount its reliability
in determining that the NORMAL meaning of “porneia” might include "adultery"
or "incest", ESPECIALLY AS A GROUND FOR DIVORCE. ARE THERE ANY BIBLICAL
EXAMPLES OF A REAL DIVORCE FOR HARLOTRY? 1. IN THE OLD TESTAMENT
- FOR "TAZNUTH" or "ZANAH" In the whole of the
Old Testament, while there are a number of references which acknowledge the fact
of divorce, there are only two clear cases of REAL divorce. These are the cases
described in Ezra chapter 10 and Nehemiah chapter 13. These cases are also referred to
by the prophet Malachi. There were three
problems with the marriages concerned: *
the wives were certainly guilty of
"spiritual porneia" .... idolatry. Malachi tells us that
they were "the daughters of a foreign god".
(Malachi 2:11). Perhaps these
husbands were also involved in idolatry. This would not be the first case of husbands
being drawn into this sin by foreign wives. e.g. Solomon. *
The marriages were illegal according
to the law of Moses. The wives were not Jews. God's name for such unions between
previously unmarried parties would be "fornication". (or " taznuth " or “porneia”!) *
At least some of the marriages were
adulterous. Some of the men
involved had broken covenant with their first wives and divorced them, to enter
these marriages. (Malachi 2:14- 16).
God did not recognise these divorces any more than He did the second marriages! These "marriages"
were not marriages at all. Since they were illegal and involved either harlotry
or adultery, they could never be said to have been JOINED BY GOD. Malachi calls the
marriages an abomination which profaned the sanctuary of the Lord. (Malachi 2:11) On all counts, they
needed to be undone, in repentance. There is one other
Old Testament case where an INVALID DIVORCE AND REMARRIAGE was undone! That is the case
of David and Michal. Saul had taken David's
wife and given her to Palti. When David came to the throne, one of His first actions
was to have her taken from her second husband and returned to him. Thus did he
rescue her from adultery. Her second marriage was invalid because her divorce
was also invalid in God's sight. 2. IN THE NEW TESTAMENT
- FOR “porneia” In the New Testament,
there is no example of a completed divorce at all. However, there is
one which NEARLY happened. It should be no surprise to discover that in this case,
the ground was (or would have been) “porneia”. Dare we suggest
that in the only Gospel to contain the "exceptive clause", the Holy
Spirit has also given us the only example of divorce which would allow us to understand
what the exception means? The example is,
of course, the case of Joseph and Mary. At the time where
Joseph mistakenly thought Mary to be guilty of “porneia” their marriage had NOT
BEEN JOINED BY GOD. They were betrothed, but not yet married. According to Jewish
custom a betrothal required the same bill of divorcement to undo it, as did a
marriage. This case is the
only clear New Testament EXAMPLE of what Jesus might have meant by “porneia” as
a valid ground for divorce, ..... and, if Joseph had not been mistaken, then on
two counts, it would have been a separation of a couple who God HAD NOT JOINED! *
Firstly, the marriage had not yet been
finalised or consummated. *
Secondly, had it been true that Mary
had committed fornication, then in God's sight, she would already have belonged
to another man. Even if we conclude
that “porneia” does have a wider meaning, there is certainly no case history at
all, anywhere in Scripture, which would justify that wider meaning as an all-inclusive
ground for REMARRIAGE after a divorce. To go beyond the boundaries of the examples
quoted, to extend the meaning of “porneia” to adultery, in the context of divorce,
is to argue from silence. THE EFFECT OF THE
TEACHING OF JESUS ABOUT MARRIAGE, ON THE MEANING OF “porneia” To reach a satisfactory
conclusion about the meaning of “porneia” we must do more than study English,
Greek and Hebrew words. We must lay our foundation, not in the subject of divorce,
but in what Jesus said about marriage. Divorce is about
breaking marriage contracts. “porneia” is the one valid ground for breaking a
marriage contract. When we reach a
clear understanding of what Jesus taught about MARRIAGE, it will limit our understanding
of “porneia” in the specific context of His teaching about divorce. Jesus was direct
and simple about this subject. If we will hear this clearly, it will answer ALL
our other questions! "What God has joined together, let not man
separate". (Matthew
19:6). This is exactly
what our marriage vows said, "..... for better, for worse, ..... until death
do us part". This is THE FOUNDATION
which conditions our ultimate understanding of the meaning of “porneia”. Once a marriage
has been joined by God, the two are no longer two, but ONE, until separated by
death, (which is a separation remaining as much in God's hands as the joining.) What is it then
that men may separate? Is there a marriage that God HAS NOT JOINED? The answer is certainly
yes. Just as certainly as there are manmade divorces which God does not recognise,
there are also marriages joined by men, which God has not joined. This concept is
preserved in wording of the traditional Marriage Services still used by many churches. "Be assured
that those who are joined other than God's word allows, are not joined together
by God. Neither is their matrimony lawful " Properly understood,
this will limit our definition of “porneia”. “Porneia” is about
the separation of what God has NOT JOINED. Since adultery takes
place AFTER GOD HAS JOINED A MARRIAGE, it is excluded as a cause for a divorce
which grants licence for a second marriage. Men MAY NOT SEPARATE
WHAT GOD HAS JOINED. God
has a far different and much more sacrificial answer for those who have taken
vows, "until death do us part". AWKWARD QUESTIONS
ABOUT THE MEANING OF “porneia” For those who do
want to insist that “porneia” means "adultery", in the context of divorce,
there are some awkward questions to be answered. Why is it that most
people say that it has a broader meaning, and then take only one narrow part of
that meaning, namely "adultery", as THE GROUND for divorce? Why do we not include
all of the other ways in which the word is used, as valid grounds for divorce
and remarriage? For instance, in
the New Testament, “porneia” is also used to describe the same sort of SPIRITUAL
fornication for which the prophets say God divorced His "wife". If we use the word
as the prophets do, and as the Apostle John does, why should we not include idolatry,
or mixing politics with Christianity, (committing fornication with the Kings of
the earth), as a ground for divorce? (We might even use Malachi to support our
cause!) If we do include
idolatry, what sort of idol do we mean? Is it to be restricted
to the religious idolatry of paganism or Catholicism? Or should we also
allow it to include covetousness? (Colossians 3:5) Further, if in the
context of divorce “porneia” does mean "adultery", what is our definition
of adultery? Shall we confine our definition to the deed itself? Or, since it is
Jesus who is using the word, must we not also include the secret lustful fantasies
of the mind, which he includes in HIS definition of adultery? How many marriages
would survive if we did open THAT door to the hard hearted? If we do reject
idolatry and covetousness and sexual fantasy, why should we not also reject other
meanings of the word? The answer to all
of those awkward questions is twofold. Firstly, the NORMAL
meaning of “porneia” does not include "adultery". The Greeks had a separate
word for that. Secondly there is
ONLY ONE of the several possible meanings of "porneia' which
would meet the PRIMARY REQUIREMENT OF NOT SEPARATING WHAT GOD HAS JOINED. CONCLUSION The Hebrew "taznuth" and the Greek “porneia” do have several
meanings. However, not ALL
of them apply in every place where the word appears! That is especially true in
the context of the teaching of Jesus about divorce. In that context the meaning
of “porneia”, must be limited by our understanding of what Jesus says about MARRIAGE.
From the several meanings offered as possibilities, we must choose a meaning that
addresses the following issues: *
What did Jesus mean when he said, "what God has
joined, let not man separate"? *
Are there any possible grounds to break
the sacred promise, MADE TO GOD, when we made our marriage vows, "for better,
for worse, ...... until death do us part"? *
Can there be a marriage which GOD HAS
NOT JOINED, which men may separate? *
If there is such a marriage, what sexual
sin allows it to be undone? Regardless of what
“porneia” MIGHT OR MIGHT NOT MEAN in other contexts, its meaning in this narrow
context of divorce, must refer to a case WHICH DOES NOT SEPARATE WHAT GOD HAS
JOINED. That brings us back
to the case of Joseph and Mary, as the sole New Testament example of what Jesus
meant, when He said, "except for porneia". In the NARROW CONTEXT
OF DIVORCE, sexual sin by an unmarried girl, is the ONLY meaning for “porneia”
which is acceptable. POSTSCRIPT Amongst those whose
hearts are not hard, that conclusion is meant to be treated with great discretion. In our western culture,
the circumstances in which a divorce might be valid on the ground of "fornication"
are extremely rare. The "exceptive
clause" DOES NOT automatically open the door, either to cancel a betrothal,
or to insist on the "right" to divorce, in EVERY case where fornication
is discovered during the betrothal period, or in the early days of a marriage. Nor does it seem
at all reasonable to suggest that it could ever justify divorce several years
and several children later! Especially in a
Christian setting, the possibility of past sinful relationships should be canvassed
during pre-marriage counselling, long BEFORE the marriage vows are said. In a
situation where there is something to confess, this is the time to encourage any
necessary honesty, forgiveness, and reconciliation. When the past has been forgiven,
"from the heart", (Matthew 18:35)
it can never again become a ground for divorce. In cases where there
has been dishonesty, and fornication has not been discovered until after the marriage
has been entered, the Christian goal is not separation, but reconciliation |